1 in 20 is not different from 1 in 200

Here is an excerpt from the 3rd part of our operational risk study for firms subject to IFPR. We have found that the capital requirements for these scenarios (i.e. the 1 in 200 value) are comparable in size to the losses that firms assume for extreme but plausible situations (such as the 1 in 20 value). So why do most firms avoid using models?